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Poker Players Alliance Forums » Ask Skallagrim

1. j r
   Member
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   I've been wondering about something that maybe a lawyer can answer. If someone from a state where online poker isn't allowed used a remote client that were in a state where poker is allowed in order to play poker, would that make it legal? I guess the same question would apply, such that if you went to another state to play online poker, but accepted your cashout to the state where it is illegal? It's not that I think anyone should try this, it's that I'm really curious how the law works in those situations.

   Posted 1 year ago #

2. Skallagrim
   State Director & Moderator
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   The answer to your question lies in the concept of "jurisdiction." Generally speaking, a state only has jurisdiction (the right to pass laws or enforce laws concerning a subject) over acts committed within the borders of its territory (and sometimes over acts that have an effect within its territory).

   Thus in your example, the playing of an illegal gambling game through a remote client would not be a defense - the actual playing is still taking place within the states jurisdiction; conversely, merely returning the proceeds of an activity legal where engaged in back to a state that has a law making that activity illegal, would not, in and of itself, be illegal. Many states have very strict prohibitions on gambling. No such state can prosecute you for gambling in Las Vegas however, even if you are lucky enough to be bringing winnings back home.

   Hope that answers your question.

   Skallagrim

   Posted 1 year ago #

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